3i infotech Aptitude Questions

3i infotech Aptitude Questions:

Q1. If 2x-y=4 then 6x-3y=?

(a)15
(b)12
(c)18
(d)10

Ans. (b)

Q2. If x=y=2z and xyz=256 then what is the value of x?

(a) 12
(b) 8
(c)16
(d) 6

Ans. (b)

Q3. (1/10)18 - (1/10)20 = ?

(a) 99/1020
(b) 99/10
(c) 0.9
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

Q4. Pipe A can fill in 20 minutes and Pipe B in 30 mins and Pipe C can empty the same in 40 mins.If all of them work together, find the time taken to fill the tank

(a) 17 1/7 mins
(b) 20 mins
(c) 8 mins
(d) none of these

Ans. (a)

Q4. Thirty men take 20 days to complete a job working 9 hours a day.How many hour a day should 40 men work to complete the job?

(a) 8 hrs
(b) 7 1/2 hrs
(c) 7 hrs
(d) 9 hrs

Ans. (b)

Q5. Find the smallest number in a GP whose sum is 38 and product 1728

(a) 12
(b) 20
(c) 8
(d) none of these

Ans. (c)

Q6. A boat travels 20 kms upstream in 6 hrs and 18 kms downstream in 4 hrs.Find the speed of the boat in still water and the speed of the water current?

(a) 1/2 kmph
(b) 7/12 kmph
(c) 5 kmph
(d) none of these

Ans. (b)

Q7. A goat is tied to one corner of a square plot of side 12 m by a rope 7 m long.Find the area it can graze?

(a) 38.5 sq.m
(b) 155 sq.m
(c) 144 sq.m
(d) 19.25 sq.m

Ans. (a)

Q8. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?

Ans.46 steps.

Q9. The average age of 10 members of a committee is the same as it was 4 years ago, because an old member has been replaced by a young member. Find how much younger is the new member ?

Ans.40 years.

Q10. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?

Q11. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?

Ans. AE = 10

Q12. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?

Ans. BC = 4 cm.

Q13. Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.

Ans. 64/2210

Q14. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?

Ans. 991.

Q15. If Log2 x - 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?

Ans. x = e2 or e3.

Q16. In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?

A. 12
B. 20
C. 24
D. 30

Ans. C

Q17. Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?

Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.

Q18. A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?

Ans.18 hours.

Q19. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12

Ans. 9

Q20. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture?

Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.

Q21. A wizard named Nepo says "I am only three times my sons age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old." How old is Nepo?

Ans.360 years old.

Q22. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they?

Ans. Three

Q23. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day?

Ans. Eight.

Q24. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?

Ans. Five minutes.

Q25. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?

Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.

Q25. Solve for x and y: 1/x - 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9.

Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.

Q26. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?

Ans.20 %.

Q27. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.

Ans. 10.

Q28. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?

Ans. Friday.

Q28. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?

Ans. 1700 men.

Q29. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?

Q30. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?

Ans. 167 minutes.

Q31. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time?

Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.

Q32. For a motorist there are three ways going from City A to City C. By way of bridge the distance is 20 miles and toll is \$0.75. A tunnel between the two cities is a distance of 10 miles and toll is \$1.00 for the vehicle and driver and \$0.10 for each passenger. A two-lane highway without toll goes east for 30 miles to city B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to City C.

Q1. Which is the shortest route from B to C

(a) Directly on toll free highway to City C
(b) The bridge
(c) The Tunnel
(d) The bridge or the tunnel
(e) The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway

Ans. (a)

Q2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of toll and distance is to use the

(a) tunnel
(b) bridge
(c) bridge or tunnel
(d) toll free highway
(e) bridge and highway

Ans. (a)

Q3. Jim usually drives alone from City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel?

(a) Whether his wife goes with him
(b) scenic beauty on the route
(c) Traffic conditions on the road, bridge and tunnel
(d) saving \$0.25 in tolls (e) price of gasoline consumed in covering additional 10 miles on the bridge

Ans. (a)

Q4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel the chief factor(s) would be:

II. Number of passengers in the car
III. Location of ones homes in the center or outskirts of one of the cities
IV. Desire to save \$0.25

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III only
(d) III and IV only
(e) I and II only

Ans. (a)

Q33. The letters A, B, C, D, E, F and G, not necessarily in that order, stand for seven consecutive integers from 1 to 10, D is 3 less than A, B is the middle term F is as much less than B as C is greater than D, G is greater than F,

Q1. The fifth integer is

(a) A
(b) C
(c) D
(d) E
(e) F

Ans. (a)

Q2. A is as much greater than F as which integer is less than G

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Ans. (a)

Q3. If A = 7, the sum of E and G is

(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 14
(e) 16

Ans. (a)

Q4. A - F = ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) Cannot be determined

Ans. (a)

Q5. An integer T is as much greater than C as C is greater than E. T can be written as A + E. What is D?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) Cannot be determined

Ans. (a)

Q6. The greatest possible value of C is how much greater than the smallest possible value of D?

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6

Ans. (a)

Q7.
1. All Gs are Hs
2. All Gs are Js or Ks
3. All Js and Ks are Gs
4. All Ls are Ks
5. All Ns are Ms
6. No Ms are Gs

Q1. If no Ps are Ks, which of the following must be true?

(a) All Ps are Js
(b) No P is a G
(c) No P is an H
(d) If any P is an H it is a G
(e) If any P is a G it is a J

Ans. (a)

Q2. Which of the following can be logically deduced from the conditions stated?

(a) No Ms are Hs
(b) No Ms that are not Ns are Hs
(c) No Hs are Ms
(d) Some Ms are Hs
(e) All Ms are Hs

Ans. (a)

Q3. Which of the following is inconsistent with one or more of the conditions?

(a) All Hs are Gs
(b) All Hs that are not Gs are Ms
(c) Some Hs are both Ms and Gs
(d) No Ms are Hs
(e) All Ms are Hs

Ans. (a)

Q4. The statement "No Ls are Js" is

I. Logically deducible from the conditions stated
II. Consistent with but not deducible from the conditions stated
III. Deducible from the stated conditions together with the additional statement "No Js are Ks"

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only
(e) Neither I, II nor III

Ans. (a)

Q35. In country X, democratic, conservative and justice parties have fought three civil wars in twenty years. TO restore stability an agreement is reached to rotate the top offices President, Prime Minister and Army Chief among the parties so that each party controls one and only one office at all times. The three top office holders must each have two deputies, one from each of the other parties. Each deputy must choose a staff composed of equally members of his or her chiefs party and member of the third party.

Q1. When Justice party holds one of the top offices, which of the following cannot be true

(a) Some of the staff members within that office are justice party members
(b) Some of the staff members within that office are democratic party members
(c) Two of the deputies within the other offices are justice party members
(d) Two of the deputies within the other offices are conservative party members
(e) Some of the staff members within the other offices are justice party members.

Ans. (a)

Q2. When the democratic party holds presidency, the staff of the prime ministers deputies are composed

I. One-fourth of democratic party members
II. One-half of justice party members and one-fourth of conservative party members
III. One-half of conservative party members and one-fourth of justice party members.

(a) I only
(b) I and II only
(c) II or III but not both
(d) I and II or I and III
(e) None of these

Ans. (a)

Q3. Which of the following is allowable under the rules as stated:

(a) More than half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(b) Half of the staff within a given office belonging to a single party
(c) Any person having a member of the same party as his or her immediate superior
(d) Half the total number of staff members in all three offices belonging to a single party
(e) Half the staff members in a given office belonging to parties different from the party of the top office holder in that office.

Ans. (a)

Q4. The office of the Army Chief passes from Conservative to Justice party. Which of the following must be fired.

(a) The democratic deputy and all staff members belonging to Justice party
(b) Justice party deputy and all his or hers staff members
(c) Justice party deputy and half of his Conservative staff members in the chief of staff office
(d) The Conservative deputy and all of his or her staff members belonging to Conservative party
(e) No deputies and all staff members belonging to conservative parties.

Ans. (a)

Q36. In recommendations to the board of trustees a tuition increase of \$500 per year, the president of the university said "There were no student demonstrations over the previous increases of \$300 last year and \$200 the year before".

Q1. If the presidents statement is accurate then which of the following can be validly inferred from the information given:

I. Most students in previous years felt that the increases were justified because of increased operating costs.
II. Student apathy was responsible for the failure of students to protest the previous tuition increases.
III. Students are not likely to demonstrate over new tuition increases.

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I or II but not both
(d) I, II and III
(e) None

Ans. (a)

Q37. The office staff of XYZ corporation presently consists of three bookeepers--A, B, C and 5 secretaries D, E, F, G, H. The management is planning to open a new office in another city using 2 bookeepers and 3 secretaries of the present staff . To do so they plan to seperate certain individuals who dont function well together.

Q1. The following guidelines were established to set up the new office

I.  Bookeepers A and C are constantly finding fault with one another and should not be sent together to the new office as a team
II. C and E function well alone but not as a team , they should be seperated
III. D and G have not been on speaking terms and shouldnt go together
IV Since D and F have been competing for promotion they shouldnt be a team

Q2. If A is to be moved as one of the bookeepers,which of the following cannot be a possible working unit.

A. ABDEH
B. ABDGH
C. ABEFH
D. ABEGH

Ans. B

Q3. If C and F are moved to the new office,how many combinations are possible

A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4

Ans.A

Q4. If C is sent to the new office,which member of the staff cannot go with C

A.B
B.D
C.F
D.G

Ans.B

Q5. Under the guidelines developed,which of the following must go to the new office

A.B
B.D
C.E
D.G

Ans.A

Q6. If D goes to the new office,which of the following is/are true

I.C cannot go
II.A cannot go
III.H must also go

A.I only
B.II only
C.I and II only
D.I and III only

Ans.D

Q38. After months of talent searching for an administrative assistant to the president of the college the field of applicants has been narrowed down to 5--A, B, C, D, E .It was announced that the finalist would be chosen after a series of all-day group personal interviews were held.

Q1. The examining committee agreed upon the following procedure

I.The interviews will be held once a week
II.3 candidates will appear at any all-day interview session
III.Each candidate will appear at least once
IV.If it becomes necessary to call applicants for additional interviews, no more 1 such applicant should be asked to appear the next week
V.Because of a detail in the written applications,it was agreed that whenever candidate B appears, A should also be present.
VI.Because of travel difficulties it was agreed that C will appear for only 1 interview.
VI.At the first interview the following candidates appear A,B,D.

Q1. Which of the following combinations can be called for the interview to be held next week.

A. BCD
B. CDE
C. ABE
D. ABC

Ans.B

Q2. Which of the following is a possible sequence of combinations for interviews in 2 successive weeks

A.ABC;BDE
B.ABD;ABE
D.BDE;ACD

Ans.C

Q3. If A ,B and D appear for the interview and D is called for additional interview the following week,which 2 candidates may be asked to appear with D?

I. A
II B
III.C
IV.E

A.I and II
B.I and III only
C.II and III only
D.III and IV only

Ans.D

Q4. Which of the following correctly state(s) the procedure followed by the search committee

I.After the second interview all applicants have appeared at least once
II.The committee sees each applicant a second time
III.If a third session,it is possible for all applicants to appear at least twice

A.I only
B.II only
C.III only
D.Both I and II

Ans.A

Q39. A certain city is served by subway lines A,B and C and numbers 1 2 and 3 When it snows , morning service on B is delayedWhen it rains or snows , service on A, 2 and 3 are delayed both in the morning and afternoon When temp. falls below 30 degrees farenheit afternoon service is cancelled in either the A line or the 3 line, but not both When the temperature rises over 90 degrees farenheit, the afternoon service is cancelled in either the line C or the 3 line but not both.When the service on the A line is delayed or cancelled, service on the C line which connects the A line, is delayed When service on the 3 line is cancelled, service on the B line which connects the 3 line is delayed. On Jan 10th, with the temperature at 15 degree farenheit, it snows all day.

Q1. On how many lines will service be affected, including both morning and afternoon.

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Ans. D

Q2. On Aug 15th with the temperature at 97 degrees farenheit it begins to rain at 1 PM. What is the minimum number of lines on which service will be affected?

(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5

Ans. C

Q3. On which of the following occasions would service be on the greatest number of lines disrupted.

(A) A snowy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(B) A snowy morning with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(C) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 45 degree farenheit
(D) A rainy afternoon with the temperature at 95 degree farenheit

Ans. B

Q40. In a certain society, there are two marriage groups, red and brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wives groups; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents. Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden

Q1. A brown female could have had

I. A grandfather born Red
II. A grandmother born Red
III Two grandfathers born Brown

(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I, II and III
(D) I and II only

Ans. D

Q2. A male born into the brown group may have

(A) An uncle in either group
(B) A brown daughter
(C) A brown son
(D) A son-in-law born into red group

Ans. A

Q3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated.

(A) A brown male marrying his fathers sister
(B) A red female marrying her mothers brother
(C) A widower marrying his wifes sister
(D) A widow marrying her divorced daughters ex-husband

Ans. B

Q4. If widowers and divorced males retained their group they had upon marrying which of the following would be permissible ( Assume that no previous marriage occurred)

(A) A woman marrying her dead sisters husband
(B) A woman marrying her divorced daughters ex-husband
(C) A widower marrying his brothers daughter
(D) A woman marrying her mothers brother who is a widower.

Ans. D

Q41. I. All Gs are Hs
II. All Gs are Js or Ks
III All Js and Ks are Gs
IV All Ls are Ks
V All Ns are Ms
VI No Ms are Gs

There are six steps that lead from the first to the second floor. No two people can be on the same step

Q1. Mr. A is two steps below Mr. C
Mr. B is a step next to Mr. D
Only one step is vacant ( No one standing on that step )
Denote the first step by step 1 and second step by step 2 etc.
If Mr. A is on the first step, Which of the following is true?

(a) Mr. B is on the second step
(b) Mr. C is on the fourth step.
(c) A person Mr. E, could be on the third step
(d) Mr. D is on higher step than Mr. C.

Ans: (d)

Q2. If Mr. E was on the third step & Mr. B was on a higher step than Mr. E which step must be vacant

(a) step 1
(b) step 2
(c) step 4
(d) step 5
(e) step 6

Ans: (a)

Q3. If Mr. B was on step 1, which step could A be on?

(a) 2&e only
(b) 3&5 only
(c) 3&4 only
(d) 4&5 only
(e) 2&4 only

Ans: (c)

Q4. If there were two steps between the step that A was standing and the step that B was standing on, and A was on a higher step than D , A must be on step

(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5
(e) 6

Ans: (c)

Q5. Which of the following is false

i. B&D can be both on odd-numbered steps in one configuration
ii. In a particular configuration A and C must either both an odd numbered steps or both an even-numbered steps
iii. A person E can be on a step next to the vacant step.

(a) i only
(b) ii only
(c) iii only
(d) both i and iii

Ans: (c)

Q42. Six swimmers A, B, C, D, E, F compete in a race. The outcome is as follows.

i. B does not win.
ii. Only two swimmers separate E & D
iii. A is behind D & E
iv. B is ahead of E , with one swimmer intervening
v. F is a head of D

Q1. Who stood fifth in the race ?

(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D
(e) E

Ans: (e)

Q2. How many swimmers seperate A and F ?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) cannot be determined

Ans: (d)

Q3. The swimmer between C & E is

(a) none
(b) F
(c) D
(d) B
(e) A

Ans: (a)

Q4. If the end of the race, swimmer D is disqualified by the Judges then swimmer B finishes in which place

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
(e) 5

Ans: (b)

Q43. Five houses lettered A,B,C,D, & E are built in a row next to each other. The houses are lined up in the order A,B,C,D, & E. Each of the five houses has a colored chimney. The roof and chimney of each housemust be painted as follows.

i. The roof must be painted either green,red ,or yellow.
ii. The chimney must be painted either white, black, or red.
iii. No house may have the same color chimney as the color of roof.
iv. No house may use any of the same colors that the every next house uses.
v. House E has a green roof.
vi. House B has a red roof and a black chimney

Q1. Which of the following is true ?

(a) At least two houses have black chimney.
(b) At least two houses have red roofs.(c) At least two houses have white chimneys
(d) At least two houses have green roofs(e) At least two houses have yellow roofs

Ans: (c)

Q2. Which must be false ?

(a) House A has a yellow roof
(b) House A & C have different color chimney
(c) House D has a black chimney
(d) House E has a white chimney
(e) House B&D have the same color roof.

Ans: (b)

Q3. If house C has a yellow roof. Which must be true.

(a) House E has a white chimney
(b) House E has a black chimney
(c) House E has a red chimney
(d) House D has a red chimney
(e) House C has a black chimney

Ans: (a)

Q4. Which possible combinations of roof & chimney can house

I. A red roof 7 a black chimney
II. A yellow roof & a red chimney
III. A yellow roof & a black chimney

(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I & II only
(e) I&II&III

Ans: (e)

Q44. Find x+2y

(i). x+y=10
(ii). 2x+4y=20

Ans: b

Q45. Is angle BAC is a right angle

(i) AB=2BC
(2) BC=1.5AC

Ans: (e)

Q46. Is x greater than y

(i) x=2k
(ii) k=2y

Ans: a

ABB Aptitude Questions

ABB Aptitude Questions:

Q1. The total cost of 8 buckets and 5 mugs is Rs. 92 and the total cost of 5 buckets and 8 mugs is Rs. 77. Find the cost of 2 mugs and 3 buckets.

A) Rs. 35
B) Rs. 70
C) Rs. 30
D) Rs. 38

ANS:  A

Explanation:

CP of 1 bucket = Rs. X
CP of 1 mug = Rs. Y
∴ 8x + 5y = 92………….. (i)
5x + 8y = 77 …………….(ii)
By equation (i) × 5 – equation (ii) × 8.
40x + 25y – 40x – 64y
= 460 – 616 ⇒ − 39y = - 156⇒ y = 4
From equation (i),
8x + 20 = 92 ⇒8x = 92 – 20 = 72 ⇒ x = 9
∴ CP of 2 mugs and 3 buckets
= 2 × 4 + 3 × 9 = 8 + 27 = Rs. 35

Q2. If a/(1-a) + b/(1-b) + c/(1-c) = 1 then the value of 1/(1-a) + 1/(1-b) + 1/(1-c) is

A) 1
B) 3
C) 4
D) 0

ANS: C

Q3. If (x – 3)2 + (y – 5)2 + (z – 4)2 = 0, then the value of x2/9 + y2/25 + z2/16 is

A) 12
B) 9
C) 3
D) 1

ANS: C

Explanation:

(x – 3)2 + (y – 5)2 + (z – 4)2 = 0
⇒ x – 3 = 0 ⇒ x= 3
Y – 5 = 0 ⇒ y = 5
Z – 4 = 0 ⇒ z = 4

Q4. If 4x/3 + 2P = 12 for what value of P, x = 6?

A) 6
B) 4
C) 2
D) 1

ANS:  C

Explanation:

When x = 6, (4 * 6)/3 + 2P = 12
⇒ 8 + 2P = 12
⇒ 2P = 12 – 8 = 4
⇒ P = 2

Q5. The value of (4+3√3)/(7+4√3) is

A) 5√3 - 8
B) 5√3 + 8
C) 8√3 + 5
D) 8√3 - 5

ANS:  A

Explanation:

Expression = (4+3√3)/(7+4√3)
Rationalizing the denominator.

Q6. If x(3 - 2/x) = 3/x, then the value of x2 + 1/x2 is

A) 21/9
B) 24/9
C) 31/9
D) 34/9

ANS:  B

Explanation:

Q7. What number must be added to the expression 16a2 – 12a to make it a perfect square?

A) 9/4
B) 11/2
C) 13/2
D) 16

ANS:  A

Explanation:

a2 - 2ab + b2 = (a-b)2
∴ 16a2 – 12a = (4a)2 - 2*4a*3/2
Hence, on adding (3/2)2 = 9/4, expression will be a perfect square.

Q8. The straight line 2x + 3y = 12 passes through:

A) 1st, 2nd and 3rd quadrant
B) 1st, 2nd and 4th quadrant
C) 2nd, 3rd and 4th quadrant
D) 1st, 3rd and 4th quadrant

ANS:  B

Explanation:

The usual way to solve these type of questions is to put x = 0 once and find y coordinate. This would represent the point where the line cuts the Y axis.
Similarly put y = 0 once and find x coordinate. This would represent the point where the line cuts the X axis. Then join these points and you will get the graph of the line.
So when we put x = 0 we get y = 4.
When we put y = 0 we get x = 6.
So when we join these points we see that we get a line in 1st quadrant, which when extended both sides would go to 4th and 2nd quadrants. So option B.

Q9. The sum of three altitudes of a triangle is

A) equal to the sum of three sides
B) Less than the sum of sides
C) greater than the sum of the sides
D) Twice the sum of sides

ANS:  B

Explanation:

AP <  AB
BQ <  BC
CR < AC
AP + BQ + CR < AB + BC + AC

Q10. In ABC, A + B = 65, B + C = 140, then find B.

A) 40°
B) 25°
C) 35°
D) 20°

ANS: B

Explanation:

A + B = 65°
C = 180° - 65° = 115°
B + C = 140°
B = 140° - 115° = 25°

How to win over your interviewer and get the job

A good resume will get you a foot in the door. But once in, it’s the interview that will seal the deal for you. Which is why it’s important that you are fully prepared about how to present yourself when you go in to meet a prospective employer.

One important thing to remember is that the interviewer isn’t only looking at your professional qualifications, but also your soft skills. The fact that they have called you for an interview means they already believe you have the basic qualifications for the job. Now they want to ascertain whether you actually know the job, and whether they would like to work with you or not. You will now be marked on aspects like your personality, conduct, maturity, integrity and resourcefulness.

While interviewing is largely a subjective exercise, there are some commonalities that all recruiters tend to favour. Which is why it’s important that you:

Pay close attention to your appearance

The first thing interviewers notice is how you are dressed. Dressing for an interview usually depends on the industry you’re in. If you are in, say, the media or the entertainment industry, it is okay to turn up in smart casuals. For most other sectors, however, a formal dress code is necessary. Dressing shabbily or inappropriately will earn you massive negative points.

Project likeability…

Interviewers want to see if you can be part of a team. Along with your professional skills, they will also evaluate you for your likeability, emotional quotient, agreeability and ability to remain calm under pressure. Above all, they will want to see whether you fit into the company culture.

…and the right attitude

We have all heard the pithy phrases that go around about the importance of having the right attitude at work and they are all true. That is why interviewers place a premium on attitude during an interview. They want to see that you have the temperament, drive and enthusiasm for the job, as well as a solid work ethic.

The interviewer will ask you questions about your career trajectory to evaluate how the job fits in with your overall career plan. In keeping with the trend of the behaviour interview, which is becoming increasingly common these days, they will also ask you questions regarding how you tackled different work situations in the past. They will expect sensible answers which show maturity, grace under pressure and an ability to think things through. Of course, if you have a fun (but appropriate!) anecdote to throw in and break the ice a little, by all means use it.

Watch your posture and body language

A good part of communication takes place through non-verbal means. So mind your body language. Interviewers will compare what you say to them with what your body language seems to convey. Take care to appear pleasant and enthusiastic at all times, smile and don’t forget to maintain eye contact. Maintain a good posture at all times since slouching may convey a casual and laidback attitude.

Show them integrity

Integrity is an important virtue and interviewers will no doubt want to gauge whether you have professional integrity or not. Integrity refers to the ability to be honest at all times, especially to yourself. Interviewers will assess you for your professional maturity, objectivity and your ability to be honest with yourself.